Epistemology - Knowledge
In Descartes' theory--"I think; therefore, I am"--why is it
that only one self can determine if
one exists? I'm unclear on this idea.
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I'm confused as to what is meant by "experienceable objects".
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In Moore-Bruder, the authors describe Descartes' "clear and
distinct" criterion. Please
explain this further.
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Please define "speculative reason," and how does
"representation" relate to it (criticisms of
science, religion)?
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When talking about the dualists' problem you mentioned the
"mind-body problem." I
remember that you told us about it before, but I also remember me
not really understanding my
notes about it afterwards. If possible, could you please repeat
the explanation to what this was (if
it is not too much for you to write).
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Why does Berkeley state that all sensible objects exist only
in the mind? I don't really
understand the reason behind it.
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What did Descartes use to determine if he was in his dream
conjecture as opposed to reality
or even the evil demon conjecture? Did he use any type of
measure?
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George Berkeley uses the term "sensible" objects to denote
houses, trees, etc. What does he
consider to be a "non-sensible" object? Would our emotions be a
non-sensible object; and, if so,
how?
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If philosophers cannot agree on "What is knowledge?" how can
a philosopher, or anyone
else, have knowledge?
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In regard to Locke's theory, are color and odor (in relation
to the basketball example)
considered subjective because each person's perception of color
and smell is different--meaning
what one person said is of red-brown color another could say one
color is more burnt-orange or
rust?
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